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Kevin-1122
B2 · 32 Forum Posts
January 26, 2010 at 7:55 PM
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Ebony Well, it sounds to me, Kevin, that you and God (if he does exist) are at an impossible impasse! You not only want proof but are demanding that it given to you on your terms ... (reply) Actually I’m not asking for proof of God, not on my own terms or any terms because I am convinced he doesn’t exist. When I did believe in God I accepted his existence on faith. (faith in the words of what I was told by others) when I lost this faith, I eventually lost a desire for any type of communication with God. The point I was making is, if I were to change my mind concerning the existence of God it would probably be because of something that is on my own terms, but I am not expecting nor am I asking for evidence of something I am convinced doesn’t exist, I am perfectly content recognizing that I don’t have all the answers. (quote) because He seems to operate under the notion that the proof of His existence is already out there I think that’s unfortunate. If there were proof of his existence, I am sure at least one of the billions of believers out there would have provided such proof so everybody would know the truth concerning God rather than all the confusion and division that exist now, thus far it hasn't happened. Vox For the record, Kevin, I don't blame you for becoming an atheist. I believe in god, but that's probably because I derive comfort in that belief. My belief is not something I try to hold onto. It's something I recognize, and see no reason to fight. But you and I have much more in common than you'd think, given our history.
I am more or less a "deist." I believe in God, but expressly reject any idea that there is a text inspired by him. His existence, and his plan for us, is more or less evident in nature, including in certain inevitabilities that arise when we interact with one another. (reply) I think your concept of God sounds more realistic than most. Kevin
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EbonyRose
A1 · 16549 Forum Posts
January 26, 2010 at 11:26 PM
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Reference by Kevin-1122: I think that’s unfortunate. If there were proof of his existence, I am sure at least one of the billions of believers out there would have provided such proof so everybody would know the truth concerning God rather than all the confusion and division that exist now, thus far it hasn't happened. I think in this case, such *proof* would be both (individually) relative and subjective. What may or may not be *proof* to you may or may not be *proof* to someone else (or billions of someone elses). Just because you don't see or have it, doesn't mean that it's not there ... or that others don't (already) see or have it. And that's not to say who's right or who's wrong. Just that there's no absolute where the question of 'proof of God's existence' is concerned. Reference by Vox: I am more or less a "deist." I believe in God, but expressly reject any idea that there is a text inspired by him. His existence, and his plan for us, is more or less evident in nature, including in certain inevitabilities that arise when we interact with one another. I didn't know they had a name for it!  But, I absolutely agree with you 150% 
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Vox
A1 · 4796 Forum Posts
January 27, 2010 at 6:41 AM
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@ Ebony: I didn't know either, until about a year or two ago! After I found out it had a name, I used to go to people and say, "Yo, guess what, yo? I'm a deist!" LOL!!
For some reason, I never studied philosophy in college. Outside of law school, I did no postgraduate work. I did all of this thinking, and only after aa.org came along did I begin to realize (thanks to Kresge and HonestBrother, among a few other members) that most of my beliefs and ideas not only were already discussed and published, but in some cases debunked! There is very little new under the sun.
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kresge
A1 · 4290 Forum Posts
January 27, 2010 at 7:08 PM
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Reference: Kresge, are you saying that 500 years ago, no one believed that Adam and Eve were real people? Or that 300 years ago, no one believed that the world was created in 6 days? Or that 200 years ago, no one believed that there was ever really a Noah, or an Ark? Or that 150 years ago, no one believed that God and Satan had this discussion about Job? Over the years, I've come to the conclusion that literalism is exactly how the Bible was intended to be read, by both the writers and by those who compiled it... and that the "figurative language" idea was devised by devoted but realistic theologians who, faced with the inescapable realization that modern enlightenment made continued belief in the Bible as written untenable, needed a way to maintain the Bible's relevance and reverend status as the inspired word of God. I am saying that pre-modernists are not literalists. To call them literalist is anachronistic. Read the early church fathers like Origen, Tertullian, or Augustine. They are not literalist, and we are talking about people who are interpreting the Bible during the period of canonization. They explicitly talk about allegorical, figurative, and typological interpretations of the biblical texts. Read the Protestant reformers, like Calvin, Luther, or Zwingli. They are not literalists. Luther wanted to throw out entire books of the bible like James and Revelation, while at the same time being the chief advocate of sola scriptura. We must remember that for most of human history, people did not have and/or could not read the Bible. People felt a certain freedom in interpreting scripture based on what they heard and new. Biblical truths conveyed orally, symbolically (art, icons, statues, morality plays...) One of the greatest examples hermeneutical freedom is seen with enslaved Africans. They were not literalists. If they were, they would have never rebelled, because most text dealing with slavery in the Bible view it as normative - e.g., its assumed as such in the 10 Commandments, in the Pauline epistles of the New Testament. Yet, look at the slave narratives, and see how Africans interpreted scripture, how they adapted it, how they incorporated African, European, and indigenous American perspectives in their spiritual practice and reflection. Look at how the Bible was/is used in African American spirituals, literature, and poetry. Check out African American anthropological or sociological studies like those of Du Bois or Hurston. Black ministers have long invoked the concept of "sanctified imagination" in interpreting the biblical tradition. It is truly unfortunate that such material is not taught in schools and churches. I deal with this in my course on African Americans and the Bible, and for some people it is a kind of revelation. Literalism is the enemy of faith and reason.
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EbonyRose
A1 · 16549 Forum Posts
January 28, 2010 at 1:23 PM
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So Kresge ... Was the original, (first-ever-seen-before) Bible presumed to have been written (as if by scholars) or discovered (as if along the lines of the 10 Commandments)?  In other words, it is my understanding that the text is (at least in some ways) supposed to be 'the Word of God' ... but, is there any kind of belief or understanding that those are supposed to actually be his words? Or is the belief more or less that (and I'm paraphrasing here .. but) that they are His words, but somebody else simply wrote them down as such?  (Lemme know if the question doesn't make any sense to you .. and I'll try to do better!  )
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Kevin-1122
B2 · 32 Forum Posts
January 28, 2010 at 6:51 PM
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Ebony:
I think in this case, such *proof* would be both (individually) relative and subjective. What may or may not be *proof* to you may or may not be *proof* to someone else (or billions of someone elses). Just because you don't see or have it, doesn't mean that it's not there ... or that others don't (already) see or have it. (reply) Yeah; good point. It’s just to me, the invisible and the nonexistent sorta look alike. Good point though. As far as Deism; if I had been taught Deism rather than Christianity from my youth, I probably would have hung on to theism a little longer than I did, but knowing my analytical mind, and the fact that the invisible and the nonexistent look alike to me, I eventually would have come to the conclusion that I have today, and concluded that my invisible God is a nonexistent God. K-1122
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Vox
A1 · 4796 Forum Posts
January 28, 2010 at 7:53 PM
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It seems to me that today's debate over literal vs. figurative interpretation is just the modern permutation of a tension that has existed for as long as Christianity. Tertullian, regardless of how we'd try to characterize his views, takes from the Adam & Eve story the notion that women are the "devil's gateway." And from what I'm reading, it appears that Philo's rejection of a literal read of the Genesis account is in response to those who thought otherwise. And what about the School of Antioch? They felt in no uncertain terms that these accounts should be taken strictly literally.
At best, there have been those who felt one way and those who felt the other, all throughout the ages. But it does seem to me -- just my observation -- that if there's a difference between then and now, it's that the non-literalist movements of today are often motivated, at least in some significant part, by things like a reaction to science, or by political considerations. We see Paul, in his letter to the ROmans, mercilessly bashing homosexuality among Greek scholars. But what we get from liberal theologians today is a tortured attempt at showing why he wasn't really doing that. "Oh, he meant straight people who engage in gay sex, not people who were naturally homosexual." "Oh, he means people who engage in gay sex after they reject the Abrahamic god and start worshipping idols, not people who engage in gay sex while still worshipping God."
These are, quite frankly, absurd claims. They reek of the desperation of people who feel they must try to harmonize the idea of Paul's inerrancy with their belief in acceptance of homosexuality. The more I read, the more convinced I've become that this just can't be right. In short, for me it has become easier to believe in an "invisible God," as Kevin puts it, than to believe that the Bible was not to be read simply as written. And the corollary for me is that, since it can't logically be read that way, I reject it as the word of God -- although not necessarily as ancient wisdom literature.
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kresge
A1 · 4290 Forum Posts
January 29, 2010 at 9:00 AM
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Reference: So Kresge ... Was the original, (first-ever-seen-before) Bible presumed to have been written (as if by scholars) or discovered (as if along the lines of the 10 Commandments)? In other words, it is my understanding that the text is (at least in some ways) supposed to be 'the Word of God' ... but, is there any kind of belief or understanding that those are supposed to actually be his words? Or is the belief more or less that (and I'm paraphrasing here .. but) that they are His words, but somebody else simply wrote them down as such? (Lemme know if the question doesn't make any sense to you .. and I'll try to do better! ) Okay, my first attempt to answer this disappeared in the ether. So, this will be shorter, sorry. There is no "first-ever-seen-bible" if I understand what you are asking. The bible is the result of millennia of history, with the participation of probably hundreds or thousands of individuals, at least to the extent that the Torah, or the Pentateuch, originated as oral traditions from communities around the Near East. About 1000 BCE, when there becomes a nation, Israel, various scribes and priest take the various stories and redact them, into a book. Again, this is just the first 5 books. Over the next several centuries, people collect hymns, write court histories, jot down words of holy people, and sometime around 200 BCE we get them brought together with the first group, to form the Hebrew Bible, or OT. The Christian New Testament and its contents are not set until approximately the 4th Century CE. But churches across the area do not necessarily follow the will of the first ecumenical counsels, and have bibles with other gospels and other epistles in them. There are hundreds of fragments and documents of equal antiquity, supposedly representing the same text, but which differ markedly, one from another. Scholars have had to do their best to discern what might be a "best text". E.g., there are near complete manuscripts of Jeremiah that differ in length by 10%. While there are fundamentalist Christians who have elaborate theories of inspiration, people who have done even a little textual work, know that they are all flawed. The bible is first and foremost a human work. This, however, does not for many Christians mean that it is not inspired by God, as it is the a peoples witness to their experience of the divine. The bible itself, however, is not divine, is not perfect, is not inerrant. It is meant to be engaged in the context of community, where people are can bring to bear their experience and reason to discern how God might continue to speak through it. I would go as far as saying that biblical literalism is a kind of idolatry. It is putting an object or a particular human interpretation in the place of God.
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kresge
A1 · 4290 Forum Posts
January 29, 2010 at 9:21 AM
(Last Edited: January 29, 2010 at 9:27 AM)
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Reference: These are, quite frankly, absurd claims. They reek of the desperation of people who feel they must try to harmonize the idea of Paul's inerrancy with their belief in acceptance of homosexuality. The more I read, the more convinced I've become that this just can't be right. In short, for me it has become easier to believe in an "invisible God," as Kevin puts it, than to believe that the Bible was not to be read simply as written. And the corollary for me is that, since it can't logically be read that way, I reject it as the word of God -- although not necessarily as ancient wisdom literature. Well Vox, we are going to disagree on this, at least to some extent. How can you say that Paul bashes homosexuality when the term itself is a product of the 19th century. Paul did not speak 19th century English. If you are going to be a literalist, wouldn't you have to at least go by what the texts says in the original language, for Paul, this being Koine Greek. Okay, now you learn Koine Greek from a standard text, with the assistance of a standard lexicon. But then you come upon words like malakoi and arsenokoitai which you have never heard of in your life. You look in the lexicon and they are not there. You search other documents of the early church, and the words are not there. What do you do? Well, you speculate, infer, make assumptions predicated on context, and come up with the best that you can. Translation is always a subjective process, particularly when dealing with ancient texts. As subjective, people often do not see how their subject position informs their interpretation. So, if my society views all same sex intimate interactions as the same, whether it is pedophilia, rape, or consensual between a couple in a committed, covenanted relationship, I might not particularly care how the words are parsed. "They are all the same and their going to hell!" I would note, however, that such debates are the result of people having certain views with respect to the authority of the biblical text, which is not shared by all. Some Christians have no problem saying that Paul is off on a lot of things, particularly with respect to his views on woman, and the institution of slavery. So, I read it, meditate and cogitate on what the text says as a part of a community for which this book plays an important part, and then say, Paul seems to have sold out aspects of the prophetic and liberative sense of the gospel. I have no problem doing that, as is the case with many Christians. Perhaps the bottom line again is what is meant by the word of God. In the tradition of the church, the word of god has never meant strictly a book. God speaks through the bible, just as God spoke through Jesus who is referred to as "the word of God", as well as the gospel or the kerygma (preaching) is referred to as the word of God. My allegiance to the text as inspired is how it has historically informed and transformed my life and others for centuries. But I am not an exclusivist or exceptionalist with respect to the canon. I belive that other texts are also inspired - ancient and contemporary. Some I introduce into my worship, or the liturgy of my faith community, others I do not.
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neocarl
C1 · 63 Forum Posts
January 29, 2010 at 10:06 AM
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Vox
A1 · 4796 Forum Posts
January 29, 2010 at 3:25 PM
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Reference: Well Vox, we are going to disagree on this, at least to some extent. How can you say that Paul bashes homosexuality when the term itself is a product of the 19th century. Paul did not speak 19th century English. If you are going to be a literalist, wouldn't you have to at least go by what the texts says in the original language, for Paul, this being Koine Greek. Okay, now you learn Koine Greek from a standard text, with the assistance of a standard lexicon. But then you come upon words like malakoi and arsenokoitai which you have never heard of in your life. You look in the lexicon and they are not there. You search other documents of the early church, and the words are not there. What do you do? Well, you speculate, infer, make assumptions predicated on context, and come up with the best that you can. Translation is always a subjective process, particularly when dealing with ancient texts. As subjective, people often do not see how their subject position informs their interpretation. So, if my society views all same sex intimate interactions as the same, whether it is pedophilia, rape, or consensual between a couple in a committed, covenanted relationship, I might not particularly care how the words are parsed. "They are all the same and their going to hell!" Well, look, the word "homosexual" may not have had a counterpart in the lexicon of his day, but this can't mean that no one had ever heard of the concept of men sleeping with men, consensually or otherwise. And if he himself coined the word "arsenokoitai," is that word really all that much of a mystery? If anything, the fact that it's not a known word -- meaning that Paul may have coined it -- makes it even more likely that he was condemning --- I'll use the term, "men who willingly sleep with men." That's what the term breaks down to -- "man-layers," more or less; if it's a word he coined, it probably wouldn't have taken on much more specialized a meaning than that.
Personally, translation is subjective if no care is taken to analyze text in its cultural context. But we have the power to turn the light onto ourselves, and control for our biases. We're not hopelessly enslaved by our cultural context. We can apply a reasoned analysis to a translation. And I should point out, the text I was referring to, Romans 1:27 and its environs, doesn't use either of those "mysterious" terms. The "contextual" interpretations you tend to come across turn on other things, not any word or term he used to denote the person who commits the acts he's bashing.
BTW, I really appreciate your points in your last two paragraphs! If I'm ever in your area, I would love to check out a sermon of yours, or a class. But I guess it would have to be a sermon, because the only time I'd set foot in that ice-box you call home would be during your summer break! LOL!!
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Kevin-1122
B2 · 32 Forum Posts
January 31, 2010 at 6:11 PM
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Neocarl (quote) Kevin,
Have you seen this?:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=GgBxvoLFgWY
These are some of the same questions I often ask. (reply) Thanks! Very powerful video. I used to think I was the only one who thought of these type of questions; it's refreshing to see others do as well. Some of the most brilliant people I know are believers, yet when an idiot such as myself brings up such obvious questions, they act as if such questions never entered their minds, never could understand that. K
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